# You are using a dividend discount model to value Bank D, which is expected to generate a 15% return

You are using a dividend discount model to value Bank D, which is expected to generate a 15% return on equity in perpetuity. The company paid dividends of exist40 million on net income of exist100 million in the most recent year and is expected to maintain high growth for the next 3 years, before settling Into stable growth, growing 3% a year in perpetuity If the cost of equity is 9%, estimate the terminal value at the end of year 3. Please show your calculations. a. exist444 63 million
b. exist1778.51 million
c. exist880.25 million
d. exist222.31 million
e. None of the above

## Coates inc. experienced the following events in 2014, in its first year of operation: (1) received $20,000 ## Steven and Emily Campbell are planning to open a casual dining restaurant in downtown Akron, Ohio, and ## Roxy operates a dress shop in arlington, virginia. lisa, a maryland resident, comes in for a measurement ## Asap which statement is true? a. as the risk of an investment decreases, the opportunity of gains increases. ## Which tool or feature reduces speckling, dust particles, scratches, and minute light ## FIllmore Company began operations on Sept. 1 by purchasing$6000 of inventory and $600 of cleaning supplies. During the month, ## This Post Has 10 Comments 1. koggebless says: 1. 3.33333333333 2. 0.61111111111 3. 2.88888888889 4. 2.888976678 Step-by-step explanation: 2. alonnachambon says: 2.09 Explanation: Given the following ; Strike price (K) =$50

Price (c) = $6 Rate (r) = 6% = 0.06 Stock price (So) =$51

Time (T) = 1

Recall, relation for a put-call parity(p) is given by:

p + So = c + Ke^-(rT)

p = c + [Ke^-(rT)] - So

p = 6 + [50e^-(0.06 × 1)] - 51

p = 6 + [50×e^-0.06] - 51

p = 6 + (50 × 0.9417645) - 51

p = 6 + 47.0882267 - 51

p = 53.0882267 - 51

p = 2.0882267

p = 2.09

3. dwilliams635 says:

14 cabins

Step-by-step explanation:

16 ÷ 2 = 8 in 1 cabin

112 ÷ 8 = 14 cabins

Hope this helps

Have a great day!!

4. joeyhd says:

48

first, i made it into 36/1 • 3/4
next, i reciprocated the second fraction to make it 4/3
my new equations was 36/1 • 4/3
then, i multiplied the numerators together and got 144
finally, i multiplied the denominators together and got 3

combined into a fraction that is 144/3 and in simplest form that’s 48

5. pupucitomarron says:

3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

1/8 / 1/3 =

1/8 * 3/1

= 3/8

6. zakarycrane5723 says:

726 divided by 6 is 121

Step-by-step explanation:

121 6 times is 726

7. laneake96 says:

12.25

Explanation:

8. tyreannag7696 says:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

This equation is in standard form.

9. imknutson962 says:

48 ( but if u want it in a fraction its 144/3)

Step-by-step explanation:

ok so do 36 over 1 divided by 3/4

so first remember keep change flip

keep 36 over 1

change the sign from division to multiplication

flip 3/4 to 4/3

now multiply

Hope this helps! 😀

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10. Britny2386 says:

You are supposed to divide in this problem. You divide 1/2 by 3 by changing 3 to its reciprocal which is 1/3. Then you multiply 1/2 by 1/3 and get 1/6 s you answer.